Matthew 5.17 says:
"Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill. [1]
Often this is used as a rationale for no longer observing the biblical laws.
However the Word Biblical Commentary has the following to say about this verse:
The precise meaning of πληρῶσαι, "to fulfill," is a difficult question that has produced much debate. The verb means literally "to fill to the full" (from Aramaic מלא, mĕlā˒ , "fulfill," rather than קוּם, qûm , "establish," which is never translated by πληροῦν in the LXX). From this basic meaning comes such derivative meanings as "accomplish," "complete," "bring to its end," "finish." "Fulfill" here hardly means "to do," although Jesus in his conduct is faithful to the true meaning of the Torah. "Complete" is congruent with the stress on fulfillment in and through Jesus but wrongly connotes that Jesus has come simply to add something to the law. The meaning in this instance cannot be determined by word study alone but must be established from the context and in particular must be consonant with the statement of v 18.
The options may be simplified into the following: (1) to do or obey the commandments of the OT (Luz, Bruner, Zahn, Schlatter, Schniewind); (2) a reference to Jesus' life and/or the accomplishment of the salvific acts of Jesus' death and resurrection ("fulfillment of prophecy"; Meier, 46; idem, Law, 76; Ljungman, 60; Guelich, Sermon, 142; Gundry; Carson); (3) teaching the law in such a way as to (a) "establish" or "uphold" the law (Wenham, Themelios 4 [1979] 93; Dalman, Jesus-Jeshua, 56-66; Daube, Rabbinic, 60), (b) add to and thus "complete" the law (Jeremias, Theology, 83-4), or (c) bring out the intended meaning of the law through definitive interpretation (with some differences: Davies-Allison; Broer, Freiheit, 34; Moo, JSNT 20 [1984] 3-49; T. W. Manson, Sayings, 153; Allen; McNeile; Green). A major decision is thus whether the verb refers to the deeds of Jesus or to the teaching of Jesus, although some scholars want to find both (e.g., Banks, JBL 93 [1974] 231; Sand, Gesetz, 186; cf. Moo, JSNT 20 [1984] 25; Carson). The first option is unsatisfactory because the word πληροῦν , "to fulfill," is never used in Matthew to describe obedience to the law, it misses the nuance of fulfillment that is associated with the word in Matthew, and it is not at all appropriate to the context, vv 21-48, which refer to Jesus' teaching. The second option is again unrelated to the context, where the deeds of Jesus are not in view, and in some forms presupposes a questionable exegesis of v 18 (see below). The third option is the most appropriate, not in the sense of simply establishing the law as is, nor of supplementing it, but in the sense of bringing it to its intended meaning in connection with the messianic fulfillment (together with πληροῦν, note "the law and the prophets") brought by Jesus. This interpretation has the advantage of fitting the context well, of maintaining the commitment to the law reflected in v 18, and at the same time of affirming the new definition that comes with fulfillment. In Matthew's view, the teaching of Jesus by definition amounts to the true meaning of the Torah and is hence paradoxically an affirmation of Jesus' loyalty to the OT.
Since in 5:21-48 Jesus defines righteousness by expounding the true meaning of the law as opposed to wrong or shallow understandings, it is best to understand πληρῶσαι here as "fulfill" in the sense of "bring to its intended meaning"-that is, to present a definitive interpretation of the law, something now possible because of the presence of the Messiah and his kingdom. Far from destroying the law, Jesus' teachings-despite their occasionally strange sound-penetrate to the divinely intended (i.e., the teleological) meaning of the law. Because the law and the prophets pointed to him and he is their goal, he is able now to reveal their true meaning and so to bring them to "fulfillment." This view is consonant with the expectation that the Messiah would not only preserve the Torah but also bring out its meaning in a definitive manner (see Davies, Setting, 161-72; idem, Torah). [2]
This opinion on Matthew 5.17, is followed by:
* "The Nelson Study Bible";
* "The Jewish New Testament Commentary"; and
* "IVP Bible Background Commentary: New Testament"; and
* "Believer's Study Bible"; and
* "Bible Knowledge Commentary"; and
* "A Commentary, Critical and Explanatory, on the Old and New Testaments"; and
* "King James Version Study Bible"; and
* "King James Version Commentary"; and
* "Spirit Filled Life Study Bible"; and
* "Tyndale Concise Bible Commentary"; and
But these commentaries go on to justify why Christians should no longer observing the Torah's commandments in their comments on Matthew 5.17:
* "Believer's Bible Commentary";
* "The New Bible Commentary (IVP)"; and
* "The Bible Exposition Commentary"; and
* "Word in Life Study Bible".
The comments on Matthew 5.17 from the "The Jewish New Testament Commentary" are worth quoting in full here as it illustrates my point that there are many Hebraic understandings that greatly assist in interpreting Jesus; Stern also makes some interesting comments regarding the logic behind no longer observing the Torah or Biblical Commandments:
The Hebrew word "Torah," literally "teaching, doctrine," is rendered in both the Septuagint and the New Testament by the Greek word "nomos," which means "law." Greek has had a more direct and pervasive influence on English and other modern languages than Hebrew has, and this is why in most languages one speaks of the "Law" of Moses rather than the "Teaching" of Moses. It is also part of the reason why the Torah has mistakenly come to be thought of by Christians as legalistic in character (see Ro 3:20bN, Ga 3:23bN).
In Judaism the word "Torah" may mean:
(1) Chumash (the Pentateuch, the five books of Moses); or
(2) That plus the Prophets and the Writings, i.e., the Tanakh (known by Christians as the Old Testament; see 4:4-10N); or
(3) That plus the Oral Torah, which includes the Talmud and other legal materials; or
(4) That plus all religious instruction from the rabbis, including ethical and aggadic (homiletical) materials.
Here it means the first of these, since "the Prophets" are mentioned separately.
The Prophets. The word "Prophets," capitalized (as here, 7:12, 22:40; Lk 16:16, 28, 31; 24:44; Yn 1:45, 6:45; Ac 13:15, 27, 40; 15:15; 24:14; 28:23; Ro 3:21), refers to the second of the three main parts of the Tanakh. When the Tanakh prophets as persons are referred to, the word is not capitalized; "prophet" in the singular is never capitalized. By mentioning both the Torah and the Prophets Yeshua is saying that he has not come to modify or replace God's Word, the Tanakh. Compare Lk 24:44-45.
To complete. The Greek word for "to complete" is "plêrôsai," literally, "to fill"; the usual rendering here, however, is "to fulfill." Replacement theology, which wrongly teaches that the Church has replaced the Jews as God's people (v. 5N), understands this verse wrongly in two ways.
First, Yeshua's "fulfilling" the Torah is thought to mean that it is unnecessary for people to fulfill it now. But there is no logic to the proposition that Yeshua's obeying the Torah does away with our need to obey it. In fact, Sha'ul (Paul), whose object in his letter to the Romans is to foster "the obedience that comes from trusting" in Yeshua, teaches that such trusting does not abolish Torah but confirms it (Ro 1:5, 3:31).
Second, with identical lack of logic, Yeshua's "fulfilling" the Prophets is thought to imply that no prophecies from the Tanakh remain for the Jews. But the Hebrew Bible's promises to the Jews are not abolished in the name of being "fulfilled in Yeshua." Rather, fulfillment in Yeshua is an added assurance that everything God has promised the Jews will yet come to pass (see 2C 1:20&N).
It is true that Yeshua kept the Torah perfectly and fulfilled predictions of the Prophets, but that is not the point here. Yeshua did not come to abolish but "to make full" (plêrôsai) the meaning of what the Torah and the ethical demands of the Prophets require. Thus he came to complete our understanding of the Torah and the Prophets, so that we can try more effectively to be and do what they say to be and do. Verses 18-20 enunciate three ways in which the Torah and the Prophets remain necessary, applicable and in force. The remainder of chapter 5 gives six specific cases in which Yeshua explains the fuller spiritual meaning of points in the Jewish Law. In fact, this verse states the theme and agenda of the entire Sermon on the Mount, in which Yeshua completes, makes fuller, the understanding of his talmidim concerning the Torah and the Prophets, so that they can more fully express what being God's people is all about.
The Anglican Christian writer Brigid Young-Hughes supports my understanding of this passage in these words:
" ' ... I came not to destroy, but to fulfil.' And surely 'to fulfil' means to complete, in the sense of bringing to perfection, not, as Christians have all too often interpreted it, to render obsolete; to fulfil in such a way as to perfect a foundation on which to build further." (Christianity's Jewish Heritage, West Sussex: Angel Press, 1988, p. 8) [3]
I hope this was thought provoking.
[1] The New King James Version. Nashville : Thomas Nelson, 1982
[2] Hagner, Donald A.: Word Biblical Commentary : Matthew 1-13. Dallas : Word, Incorporated, 2002 (Word Biblical Commentary 33A), S. 105
[3] Stern, David H.: Jewish New Testament Commentary : A Companion Volume to the Jewish New Testament. electronic ed. Clarksville : Jewish New Testament Publications, 1996, c1992, S. Mt 5:17
"Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill. [1]
Often this is used as a rationale for no longer observing the biblical laws.
However the Word Biblical Commentary has the following to say about this verse:
The precise meaning of πληρῶσαι, "to fulfill," is a difficult question that has produced much debate. The verb means literally "to fill to the full" (from Aramaic מלא, mĕlā˒ , "fulfill," rather than קוּם, qûm , "establish," which is never translated by πληροῦν in the LXX). From this basic meaning comes such derivative meanings as "accomplish," "complete," "bring to its end," "finish." "Fulfill" here hardly means "to do," although Jesus in his conduct is faithful to the true meaning of the Torah. "Complete" is congruent with the stress on fulfillment in and through Jesus but wrongly connotes that Jesus has come simply to add something to the law. The meaning in this instance cannot be determined by word study alone but must be established from the context and in particular must be consonant with the statement of v 18.
The options may be simplified into the following: (1) to do or obey the commandments of the OT (Luz, Bruner, Zahn, Schlatter, Schniewind); (2) a reference to Jesus' life and/or the accomplishment of the salvific acts of Jesus' death and resurrection ("fulfillment of prophecy"; Meier, 46; idem, Law, 76; Ljungman, 60; Guelich, Sermon, 142; Gundry; Carson); (3) teaching the law in such a way as to (a) "establish" or "uphold" the law (Wenham, Themelios 4 [1979] 93; Dalman, Jesus-Jeshua, 56-66; Daube, Rabbinic, 60), (b) add to and thus "complete" the law (Jeremias, Theology, 83-4), or (c) bring out the intended meaning of the law through definitive interpretation (with some differences: Davies-Allison; Broer, Freiheit, 34; Moo, JSNT 20 [1984] 3-49; T. W. Manson, Sayings, 153; Allen; McNeile; Green). A major decision is thus whether the verb refers to the deeds of Jesus or to the teaching of Jesus, although some scholars want to find both (e.g., Banks, JBL 93 [1974] 231; Sand, Gesetz, 186; cf. Moo, JSNT 20 [1984] 25; Carson). The first option is unsatisfactory because the word πληροῦν , "to fulfill," is never used in Matthew to describe obedience to the law, it misses the nuance of fulfillment that is associated with the word in Matthew, and it is not at all appropriate to the context, vv 21-48, which refer to Jesus' teaching. The second option is again unrelated to the context, where the deeds of Jesus are not in view, and in some forms presupposes a questionable exegesis of v 18 (see below). The third option is the most appropriate, not in the sense of simply establishing the law as is, nor of supplementing it, but in the sense of bringing it to its intended meaning in connection with the messianic fulfillment (together with πληροῦν, note "the law and the prophets") brought by Jesus. This interpretation has the advantage of fitting the context well, of maintaining the commitment to the law reflected in v 18, and at the same time of affirming the new definition that comes with fulfillment. In Matthew's view, the teaching of Jesus by definition amounts to the true meaning of the Torah and is hence paradoxically an affirmation of Jesus' loyalty to the OT.
Since in 5:21-48 Jesus defines righteousness by expounding the true meaning of the law as opposed to wrong or shallow understandings, it is best to understand πληρῶσαι here as "fulfill" in the sense of "bring to its intended meaning"-that is, to present a definitive interpretation of the law, something now possible because of the presence of the Messiah and his kingdom. Far from destroying the law, Jesus' teachings-despite their occasionally strange sound-penetrate to the divinely intended (i.e., the teleological) meaning of the law. Because the law and the prophets pointed to him and he is their goal, he is able now to reveal their true meaning and so to bring them to "fulfillment." This view is consonant with the expectation that the Messiah would not only preserve the Torah but also bring out its meaning in a definitive manner (see Davies, Setting, 161-72; idem, Torah). [2]
This opinion on Matthew 5.17, is followed by:
* "The Nelson Study Bible";
* "The Jewish New Testament Commentary"; and
* "IVP Bible Background Commentary: New Testament"; and
* "Believer's Study Bible"; and
* "Bible Knowledge Commentary"; and
* "A Commentary, Critical and Explanatory, on the Old and New Testaments"; and
* "King James Version Study Bible"; and
* "King James Version Commentary"; and
* "Spirit Filled Life Study Bible"; and
* "Tyndale Concise Bible Commentary"; and
But these commentaries go on to justify why Christians should no longer observing the Torah's commandments in their comments on Matthew 5.17:
* "Believer's Bible Commentary";
* "The New Bible Commentary (IVP)"; and
* "The Bible Exposition Commentary"; and
* "Word in Life Study Bible".
The comments on Matthew 5.17 from the "The Jewish New Testament Commentary" are worth quoting in full here as it illustrates my point that there are many Hebraic understandings that greatly assist in interpreting Jesus; Stern also makes some interesting comments regarding the logic behind no longer observing the Torah or Biblical Commandments:
The Hebrew word "Torah," literally "teaching, doctrine," is rendered in both the Septuagint and the New Testament by the Greek word "nomos," which means "law." Greek has had a more direct and pervasive influence on English and other modern languages than Hebrew has, and this is why in most languages one speaks of the "Law" of Moses rather than the "Teaching" of Moses. It is also part of the reason why the Torah has mistakenly come to be thought of by Christians as legalistic in character (see Ro 3:20bN, Ga 3:23bN).
In Judaism the word "Torah" may mean:
(1) Chumash (the Pentateuch, the five books of Moses); or
(2) That plus the Prophets and the Writings, i.e., the Tanakh (known by Christians as the Old Testament; see 4:4-10N); or
(3) That plus the Oral Torah, which includes the Talmud and other legal materials; or
(4) That plus all religious instruction from the rabbis, including ethical and aggadic (homiletical) materials.
Here it means the first of these, since "the Prophets" are mentioned separately.
The Prophets. The word "Prophets," capitalized (as here, 7:12, 22:40; Lk 16:16, 28, 31; 24:44; Yn 1:45, 6:45; Ac 13:15, 27, 40; 15:15; 24:14; 28:23; Ro 3:21), refers to the second of the three main parts of the Tanakh. When the Tanakh prophets as persons are referred to, the word is not capitalized; "prophet" in the singular is never capitalized. By mentioning both the Torah and the Prophets Yeshua is saying that he has not come to modify or replace God's Word, the Tanakh. Compare Lk 24:44-45.
To complete. The Greek word for "to complete" is "plêrôsai," literally, "to fill"; the usual rendering here, however, is "to fulfill." Replacement theology, which wrongly teaches that the Church has replaced the Jews as God's people (v. 5N), understands this verse wrongly in two ways.
First, Yeshua's "fulfilling" the Torah is thought to mean that it is unnecessary for people to fulfill it now. But there is no logic to the proposition that Yeshua's obeying the Torah does away with our need to obey it. In fact, Sha'ul (Paul), whose object in his letter to the Romans is to foster "the obedience that comes from trusting" in Yeshua, teaches that such trusting does not abolish Torah but confirms it (Ro 1:5, 3:31).
Second, with identical lack of logic, Yeshua's "fulfilling" the Prophets is thought to imply that no prophecies from the Tanakh remain for the Jews. But the Hebrew Bible's promises to the Jews are not abolished in the name of being "fulfilled in Yeshua." Rather, fulfillment in Yeshua is an added assurance that everything God has promised the Jews will yet come to pass (see 2C 1:20&N).
It is true that Yeshua kept the Torah perfectly and fulfilled predictions of the Prophets, but that is not the point here. Yeshua did not come to abolish but "to make full" (plêrôsai) the meaning of what the Torah and the ethical demands of the Prophets require. Thus he came to complete our understanding of the Torah and the Prophets, so that we can try more effectively to be and do what they say to be and do. Verses 18-20 enunciate three ways in which the Torah and the Prophets remain necessary, applicable and in force. The remainder of chapter 5 gives six specific cases in which Yeshua explains the fuller spiritual meaning of points in the Jewish Law. In fact, this verse states the theme and agenda of the entire Sermon on the Mount, in which Yeshua completes, makes fuller, the understanding of his talmidim concerning the Torah and the Prophets, so that they can more fully express what being God's people is all about.
The Anglican Christian writer Brigid Young-Hughes supports my understanding of this passage in these words:
" ' ... I came not to destroy, but to fulfil.' And surely 'to fulfil' means to complete, in the sense of bringing to perfection, not, as Christians have all too often interpreted it, to render obsolete; to fulfil in such a way as to perfect a foundation on which to build further." (Christianity's Jewish Heritage, West Sussex: Angel Press, 1988, p. 8) [3]
I hope this was thought provoking.
[1] The New King James Version. Nashville : Thomas Nelson, 1982
[2] Hagner, Donald A.: Word Biblical Commentary : Matthew 1-13. Dallas : Word, Incorporated, 2002 (Word Biblical Commentary 33A), S. 105
[3] Stern, David H.: Jewish New Testament Commentary : A Companion Volume to the Jewish New Testament. electronic ed. Clarksville : Jewish New Testament Publications, 1996, c1992, S. Mt 5:17
8 comments:
Hello! I found your blog and read your post!
It is possible to both prove the existence of a Creator and that the Torah is the instructions of the Creator – see proof in the right menu in my blog bloganders.blogspot.com
It is written in Torah, Devarim 13:1-6, that it is forbidden to add or remove mitzwot (commandments) from Torah. This is included the commandment that one shouldn’t eat pork.
It is written in Malakhi 3:6 that the Creator does not change. All of this is also in accordance with what Ribi Yehoshua (the Messiah) from Nazareth taught. You can find his teachings here: www.netzarim.co.il
Anders Branderud
Hi Anders
Thanks for stopping by.
You make good points based on sound logic.
Unfortunately for many (or most?) Christians, their views regarding the New Covenant, Jewish Identity, Legalism and what it means to "Walk in the Spirit" obstruct them from being Torah Observant.
Thus observing the Moedim, Kosher eating and other Torah commandments are excluded from conventional Christian practice.
Hello Genghis777,
Thanks!
Yes, most Christians don't know that the Creator requires of them (and all of humankind) to keep Torah.
So what did you think of the last website I refered you to?
Have a continued nice weekend!
Anders Branderud
Hi Anders
I gather that the Nitzarim is now a fully fledged group of Christians who also believe in the continuing veracity of the Torah. That's cool.
I see that they derive their name from the original Nitzarim. I wonder if they are related to the Sect of the Nazarenes (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazarene_(sect)). This group is mentioned by Jerome when he was in Jerusalem studying Hebrew. Jerome produced the Latin Vulgate bible. He says that the Nazarenes were both hated by the Christians and the Jews. By the Christians because they believed in Torah Observance and the Jews for believing in Jesus as the Messiah. I believe that they are the forefathers to the modern day Messianic Judaism movement.
They mentioned that they were the only Nitzarim extant in Israel in 1983. Today there are many Messianic Jewish congregations in Israel so I would be cautious about that particular claim. I would be surprised that there were no other congregations about in 83. Although they may not have had a formally designated Beit Din they most probably would have had a court of elders to adjudicate intra-congregational disputes and to act as an overarching governance body.
There are many Messianic Jewish congregations and there are many Christians who believe in Torah Observance and there are many of these who are in various stages of adopting Torah observant lifestyles. It would be sad to exclude people from being legitimate Believers because they did not observe a particular aspect of the Torah that did not directly impact on accepting the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob as their God and Jesus as their Lord and Saviour.
In Mat 5.17 Jesus teaches that those who teach not to observe the commandments is the least in the Kingdom of God. You will note that even Jesus doesn't exclude them from the Kingdom for doing so.
Thanks for your reply!
Wikipedia is not accurate about Netzarim. The Netzarim, it is documented in our website, was a Jewish group accepted and respected among Torah-observant Jews. (please read the History museum in our website for accurate info).
Using logic in reading the earliest MSS of Matthew (removing those things a Torah-observant Jewish Ribi impossible can have said) one arrives to the conclusion that Ribi Yehoshua said:
"Don't think that I came to uproot the Torah or the Neviim [prophets], but rather I came to reconcile them with the Oral Law of emet (truth). Should the heavens and ha-aretz (the land, particularly referring to Israel) exchange places, still, not even one ' (yod) nor one ` (qeren) of the Oral Law of Mosheh shall so much as exchange places; until it shall become that it is all being fully ratified and performed non-selectively. For whoever deletes one Oral Law from the Torah, or shall teach others such, by those in the Realm of the heavens he shall be called "deleted." Both he who preserves and he who teaches them shall be called Ribi in the Realm of the heavens. For I tell you that unless your Tzedaqah (righteousness) is over and above that of the Sophrim, and of the [probably 'Herodian'] Rabbinic-Perushim (corrupted to "Pharisees"), there is no way you will enter into the Realm of the heavens! “
Netzarim Reconstruction of Hebrew Matityahu 5:17-20.
Yәkhëz•qeil′; 18 implies that only a person doing his/her sincerest to keep the mitzwot in Torah gets the forgivness from the Creator for his/her shortcomings in doing his/her sincerest to keep Torah (+ those who turns around from their selective Torah-observance and starts doing their sincerest to serve the Creator by practising His Torah.)
Anders Branderud
Hi Anders
That's an interesting translation of the Matt 5 passage you've got there. Has anyone published it as a separate translation?
Reading Mishnaic thought back into the Bible is good but must be done carefully. Mishnaic rabbinic thought may or may not bear any resemblance to the thinking in Jesus' day, as a 2-3 hundred years or so elapsed before the oral Torah was codified. You may be surprised to find that the original text from Mat 5 is within the realms of what a Jewish rabbi would say. It is also arguable as to how binding an opinion expressed in the Mishnah or Talmud might be.
Amongst the Jews many hold to a hierarchy of interpretative methods, though some don't. For example, a literal understanding of a scriptural passage takes precedence over a figurative interpretation. In a similar way, the written Torah will always hold more authority than the oral Torah.
Leaving the text the way it is, seems more consistent with the rest of Jesus' teachings than your rendering. Jesus' discussions with the Scribes and Pharisees often centered on the oral Torah and where it circumvented the spirit of the written Torah. His discussion regarding corban and how it circumvented the written commandment to honour one's parents is an example. His disregard for oral commandments to observe ceremonially clean bowls outside of a temple context is another. Thus your endorsement of the Oral Torah in your translation from Mat 5 is inconsistent with Jesus' other positions on the matter.
Just be careful about rewriting scripture to conform to one's theory as opposed to just analyzing a scripture to get to a better understanding of it. The former can lead to rewriting the bible into something that may end up bearing little resemblance to the original text. This is Dangerous ground.
As in all things, I may be wrong too so open to discuss this further.
Hi Genghis777,
Thanks for your reply!
You wrote: “That's an interesting translation of the Matt 5 passage you've got there. Has anyone published it as a separate translation?”
You will find Netzarim Reconstruction of Hebrew Matityahu in the Israel Mall in the left menu in www.netzarim.co.il
I will refer much to that website, because it is an invaluable source of information!
It is inconsistent with all of Tan’’kh that a person who don’t do his/her sincerest to keep Torah will get to ha-olam haba (see my previous post). This is one of the many points where NT contradicts Tan’’kh.
Redactions in NT are documented by scholars – see the above website in the glossaries entry “NT” (glossaries found in the main page). Therefore the current earliest found MSS of “Matthew” cannot be assumed to be correct.
Oral Torah (and this is not equivalent with Mishnah (everything in Mishnah is not oral Torah, some things are for example invalid additions to Torah)) is only valid when it has a logical connection to written Torah – because one shouldn’t add/remove mitzwot to Torah (Devarim 13:1-6).
For essential info about Oral Torah – se the “Halakhah” and “mishpat”-entries in our glossaries; and also the History museum in the left menu.
The reason for translating Matityahu 5:17-19 the way as it is done is fully explained in the note of Netzarim Reconstruction of Hebrew Matityahu. The method used in translation is not arbitary, it is a logical approach.
“His discussion regarding corban and how it circumvented the written commandment to honour one's parents is an example.”
That has no logical connection to written Torah and was only an erroneous addition to Torah.
“Just be careful about rewriting scripture to conform to one's theory as opposed to just analyzing a scripture to get to a better understanding of it. The former can lead to rewriting the bible into something that may end up bearing little resemblance to the original text. This is Dangerous ground.”
I agree with you that the reconstructing of “Matthew” must be done in a logical, and not an arbitary, way. The followers of Ribi Yehoshua – Netzarim – have never regarded for example the original account of Mattityahu – later redacted to Matthew – as “Bible”. (read more about that in the “Christians”-section in the above website).
You wrote:”As in all things, I may be wrong too so open to discuss this further. “
That is a very good attitude!!
Anders Branderud
Genghis777,
I just happened by your blog and wanted to make a comment.
You wrote:
"In Mat 5.17 Jesus teaches that those who teach not to observe the commandments is the least in the Kingdom of God. You will note that even Jesus doesn't exclude them from the Kingdom for doing so."
"Those who teach not to observe" is very easily explained... they were the Pharisees who taught, among other things, that people who had aged parents could get out of having to spend on their care by dedicating their money to the Temple and calling it qorban, "a gift".
Yahshua HaMoshiach admitted that those teachers would be least IN THE KINGDOM because they, as COVENANT PEOPLE, were among Adonai Eloheinu's chosen.
The idea that a "Christian" who BEGINS from a position of near-total disobedience to Torah can still be considered a Covenant person is laughable.
Gentile "Christians" or anyone else who want to be considered ANYTHING, great or lesser, in the Kingdom have to BE partakers of the Covenant in the first place. They need to repent of their lawless ways and ask for YHWH to forgive them under the blood of Yahshua's sin offering. THEN, having been cleansed, they must "strive to enter in at the narrow gate".
The non-observant "Christian" who teaches men to disobey Torah is in no better or worse position than any other heathenish pagan.
Let's make sure we always, as YHWH commands His people, "put a difference between the clean and the unclean".
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